ThePsuedoMonkey wrote:I have already conceded #3 in my previous comment, but it seems like a mute point to me since its occurrence must be statistically insignificant, given the results of the research. For #2, the listeners are a part of the argument and each have their own opinions and biases (you even said they "haven't formed a significant opinion"); as such, the research indicates that they will be polarized based upon those opinions ("even if they are insignificant").
That is a leap of logic you have no evidence for.
Yes, there is significant evidence that the vast majority of people who involve themselves in arguments do so for social reasons, not rational ones, and only polarise their viewpoints further as a result.
But that in no way requires that people observing arguments must do the same.
As for #1, I am not applying the findings from numerous sample groups to the entire population, I am applying them to a functionally equivalent group: the difference may seem academic, but without it I would be just another guy throwing a stereotype into the internet.
That may be what you are doing now, but your original post was stereotyping.
No study can show with 100% certainty that 100% of the population possesses a particular trait. Yet that is what your first post claimed, and there-in lies the stereotype. You didn't extend a study that showed X% of the tested people showed Y and concluded that X% of everyone would also show Y. You extended a study that showed X% of the tested people showed Y and then claimed that
everyone would show Y, not X% of everyone.